Cancer mutations in Tumour and Tumour free
I'm kind of unsure how to biologically interpret mutations found in the tumour of Sample1 , while it exists in the tumour free of sample2! I already have controlled for what might seem like germ-line mutations coming from the same individual.
One could assume there is a contamination (which VERY controlled in our lab), so I'm wondering if there is another explanation?!
Thanks!
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