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5.1 years ago
nbotha1994
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What is the difference between the two empirical p-values, EMP1 and EMP2, generated by permutation, using Plink?
The only description they give is the following: "two sets of empirical significance values can then be calculated -- pointwise estimates of an individual SNPs significance, but also a value that controls for that fact that thousands of other''
As far as I understand is that EMP1 is after a 1000 permutations and EMP2 is after adjusting for multiple testing. OR is EMP1 only after a proportion of permutations have been performed and EMP2 after the full 1000 permutations?
For a result of mine the EMP1 result is significant (p<0.05). However, the EMP2 is not - What does that mean?
Please help.
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